**Do females convert statistically better than males?**

To measure conversion I divided marathon time by HM time.

For the __first marathon__, the mean conversion for men was 2.29 (95% confidence limits, 2.26 - 2.32, thus 95% of men had marathon times that were between 2.26 and 2.32 times their half marathon times) and for women it was 2.26 (95% CL 2.22 – 2.29).

In looking at Ally's comment, I realised the error in what I wrote on Friday - I was mistaking my standard error and standard deviation.

__ For a first marathon__

We can be 95% confident that the mean for men falls between 2.26 and 2.32 and the mean for women falls between 2.22 and 2.29.

68% of male runners would fall between a conversion rate of 2.14 and 2.44 (i.e. 1 standard deviation)

68% of women would fall between having a conversion rate of 2.13 and 2.38

__For average over multiple marathons __

68% of male runners would fall between a conversion rate of 2.15 and 2.37 (i.e. 1 standard deviation)

68% of women would fall between having a conversion rate of 2.14 and 2.30